Why the King James Bible?

You can compare all “versions” in a side by side, apples to apples comparison, and the KJV wins every time. Others are missing words and entire verses, and as far as “easier to read” versions, the KJV has been PROVEN to be easier to read and understand, so from a purely practical standpoint, it makes no sense to read an inferior version. That said, if one believes the Bible where it says God will preserve his word down through ALL generations, he ultimately is faced with the issue of finding it, and must decide which version merits his allegience. Personally, mine is the KJV, to the exclusion of all others.

Concerning the Torah being copied down through the ages, a copy was considered just as good or better than the original.

A word about papyrus: the paper Moses wrote the Torah on had a shelf life of only about 150 years tops. The OT was copied and recopied and recopied over and over through the years between Moses and Jesus. Jesus read from a COPY also. Had there been any error in his word, no doubt he would not have unrolled the scroll. To me, when Jesus read Isaiah 61 in the Synagogue, he was certifying that copy of the Torah, which was 1450 years old, and the book of Isaiah 4-500 years old at that time. “Original autographs? There are none.

If you take a KJV and compare it to others, and find entire verses MISSING, then logically one would view it as inferior and reject it. It’s the difference between reading the book, and reading the Cliff’s notes. You don’t get all the details in the Cliff’s notes. Why would someone read a cliff’s notes Bible?

Concerning Non KJV “Bibles””, they are all copyrighted, meaning they had to be CHANGED enough so that a reasonable person would view it as an original, unique “book”, a work in its own right, not a knock off or plajerised copy. You end up with apples and oranges, and you cannot compare them to each other.

Don’t equate perfect transmission with perfect translation. One is not needed for the other. Here’s an illustration: If a Greek man tells a translator in his language ” I own a bulldog”, and a translator tells me in my language “he said he owns a bulldog” is that “perfect translation” “ver batim”?? Or perfect transmission? You get the idea I hope. And a perfect Bible need not require a perfect text. Minor, unintentional mistakes in copying a document, aka “scriveners errors”,  that have no effect on transmission, do not void the legitimacy of a document, ask any judge or lawyer.


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